A postpartum client who has DVT and is on anticoagulation should be counseled about contraception. Which statement is accurate?

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Multiple Choice

A postpartum client who has DVT and is on anticoagulation should be counseled about contraception. Which statement is accurate?

Explanation:
Warfarin therapy poses a risk to a developing fetus, so a reliable form of contraception must be used to prevent pregnancy during anticoagulation. Warfarin crosses the placenta and can cause fetal harm, especially in early pregnancy, so avoiding pregnancy while on this therapy is essential. In someone with a history of DVT, estrogen-containing contraception is generally avoided because it can increase clotting risk, making non-estrogen methods preferable. The main takeaway is that contraception is needed to prevent pregnancy during anticoagulation, which is why this statement is accurate.

Warfarin therapy poses a risk to a developing fetus, so a reliable form of contraception must be used to prevent pregnancy during anticoagulation. Warfarin crosses the placenta and can cause fetal harm, especially in early pregnancy, so avoiding pregnancy while on this therapy is essential. In someone with a history of DVT, estrogen-containing contraception is generally avoided because it can increase clotting risk, making non-estrogen methods preferable. The main takeaway is that contraception is needed to prevent pregnancy during anticoagulation, which is why this statement is accurate.

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